Question

Is $(p-q)^{2} = (p+q)^{2}$?

Answer 1

Answer:

It is possible when one of q or p is zero

Step-by-step explanation:

See attachment for answer and please mark me as brainliest please if you have any doubt ask me in comment

Answer 2

$\green{\bold{\underline{ ☆ UPSC-ASPIRANT ☆} }}$

$\red{\bold{\underline{\underline{QUESTION:-}}}}$

Is $(p-q)^2 = (q-p)^2$ ?

$\huge\bigstar\huge\tt\underline\red{ᴀɴsᴡᴇʀ }\bigstar$

Yes,$(p-q)^{2} = (p+q)^{2}$ are equal

${(p - q)}^{2} = {(q - p)}^{2}$

${(p - q)}^{2} = {p}^{2} + {q}^{2} - 2pq$

let's take an example to understand:-

let's p=2 & q=1

${(2 - 1)}^{2} = {2}^{2} + {1}^{2} - 2(2)(1) = 5 - 4 = 1$

${(q - p)}^{2} = {(1 - 2)}^{2} = {1}^{2} + {2}^{2} - 2(1)(2) = 5 - 4 = 1$

It is verified ...

Hope it helps you..!!!

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