is the product of mass and angular velocity=torque applied????
Answers
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HI,
Friend,
u seem to be mistaken with mass and moment of inertia....
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Lets see some of the basics;
> for normal motion, we define a quantiy called mass,
mass is what gives the body the ability to resist change in its state of motion...
in other words .....
mass is the proportionality constant b/w force and acceleration...
more mass, more ability to resist change in motion....
Similarly for rotational motion, there is Moment of inertia....
which is the ability of the body to resist change "In rotational motion"...
given by I = m r²
this means nothing but;
when you consider a body of any shape... and that body is rotated around an axis passing through any where anyhow... not nesscasarily through material of body....
its moment of inertia is given by product of mass and (distance)²...
across tht particular crossection...
and tht is how different bodies have different moment of inertias....
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now we can define counterparts of linear motion in rotational motion by just converting liner variables into rotational variables;
linear velocity => angular velocity
v => ω
force => torque
F => τ (f x ⊥ dist.)
displacement => angular displacement
S => θ
acceleration => angular acceleration
a => α
mass => Moment of inertia
m => I
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and now we can convert any linear equation into a rotational equation just by using the above convention;
say motion equation 2)
S = ut + 1/2 at²
to rotational equation ;
θ = ωt + 1/2 α t²
.....
simialry for force equation;
F = m a
rotational force equation;
τ = I α {yes this is applied }
product of "Moment of inertia and velocity = torque"
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Ps. enjoy ;)