Question

is we apply a force on an object to move, which law does ot tell​

Answer 1

Hi friend here is your answer.

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It tells us newton's 1st law of motion.

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Answer 2

Answer:

Explanation:

If an object A exterts a force on object B, then object B exerts an equal but opposite force on object A" -> F1=−F2

Considering that, why is there motion at all? Should not all forces even themselves out, so nothing moves at all?

When I push a table using my finger, the table applies the same force onto my finger like my finger does on the table just with an opposing direction, nothing happens except that I feel the opposing force.

But why can I push a box on a table by applying force (F=ma) on one side, obviously outbalancing the force the box has on my finger and at the same time outbalancing the friction the box has on the table?

I obviously have the greater mass and acceleration as for example the matchbox on the table and thusly I can move it, but shouldn't the third law prevent that from even happening? Shouldn't the matchbox just accommodate to said force and applying same force to me in opposing direction?

I've found a lot of answers considering that question but none was satisfying to an extend that I had an epiphany solving my fundamental problem I've got understanding it