Social Sciences, asked by e3la3mithaSingh, 1 year ago

It is sometimes said that 'economic equality' should precede'political equality'.what does it mean?

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Answered by santy2
93
In respect to the heirechy of needs, this statement holds as one would rather first have provision for basic needs then political rights. This however does not write off the fact that for one to enjoy their economical freedom, they need political freedom.
It is safe to say that economic equality paves way for political equality. This is especially so if you look at examples of the nations referred to as superpowers like the US,Russia and the UK; due to their economic status, these countries are political forces in the world. Therefore if you can provide economic equality, you can easily transition it to political equality.
Answered by raushankumar35
8

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