IV Answer the following If(x) = (x - 1)/(x + 1), then show that f(1/x) = -f(x)
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x(x-x)=(x+x)(x-x), the statement divide both sides by (x-x) which is clearly nonsense because they both equal to zero. It is like saying 1×0=2×0, divide both side by zero and yoy will get 1=2 whic is clearly false.
No, this statement is false and it is wrong from the first step, when it divides both side by zero. In mathematics, 0 does not have all the properties normal numbers do. Becareful when you approach them, you might end up in the wrong hood.
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