Math, asked by nisshabi77101, 9 months ago

Laplace transform of( 1-cost) ÷t

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Answered by thakurchanchal169
1

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Answer:What I tried is to find the transform of f(t)=1−cos(t)t with

Answer:What I tried is to find the transform of f(t)=1−cos(t)t with∫∞s1udu+∫∞suu2+1du

Answer:What I tried is to find the transform of f(t)=1−cos(t)t with∫∞s1udu+∫∞suu2+1du∫∞s1udu=ln(∞)−ln(s). Is it a valid integral if I get an infinite value as a result?

Answer:What I tried is to find the transform of f(t)=1−cos(t)t with∫∞s1udu+∫∞suu2+1du∫∞s1udu=ln(∞)−ln(s). Is it a valid integral if I get an infinite value as a result?∫∞suu2+1du=12ln(∞)−12ln(s2+1)

Answer:What I tried is to find the transform of f(t)=1−cos(t)t with∫∞s1udu+∫∞suu2+1du∫∞s1udu=ln(∞)−ln(s). Is it a valid integral if I get an infinite value as a result?∫∞suu2+1du=12ln(∞)−12ln(s2+1)If it is right to have infinite values in the result of the integral, ln(∞) cancels with 12ln(∞)

Answer:What I tried is to find the transform of f(t)=1−cos(t)t with∫∞s1udu+∫∞suu2+1du∫∞s1udu=ln(∞)−ln(s). Is it a valid integral if I get an infinite value as a result?∫∞suu2+1du=12ln(∞)−12ln(s2+1)If it is right to have infinite values in the result of the integral, ln(∞) cancels with 12ln(∞)and F(s)=ln(∞)−ln(s)−12ln(∞)+12ln(s2+1)

Answer:What I tried is to find the transform of f(t)=1−cos(t)t with∫∞s1udu+∫∞suu2+1du∫∞s1udu=ln(∞)−ln(s). Is it a valid integral if I get an infinite value as a result?∫∞suu2+1du=12ln(∞)−12ln(s2+1)If it is right to have infinite values in the result of the integral, ln(∞) cancels with 12ln(∞)and F(s)=ln(∞)−ln(s)−12ln(∞)+12ln(s2+1)F(s)=12ln(s2+1)−ln(s)=ln(s2+1√s)

Answer:What I tried is to find the transform of f(t)=1−cos(t)t with∫∞s1udu+∫∞suu2+1du∫∞s1udu=ln(∞)−ln(s). Is it a valid integral if I get an infinite value as a result?∫∞suu2+1du=12ln(∞)−12ln(s2+1)If it is right to have infinite values in the result of the integral, ln(∞) cancels with 12ln(∞)and F(s)=ln(∞)−ln(s)−12ln(∞)+12ln(s2+1)F(s)=12ln(s2+1)−ln(s)=ln(s2+1√s)Step-by-step explanation:

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