Math, asked by vika91, 7 months ago

let f:R->R be defined by f(x)=1/x for all x belongs to R then f is​

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
2

Answer:

F is not defined

Step-by-step explanation:

We have, f(x) = 1/x, ∀ x ∈ R

For x = 0, f(x) is not defined.

Hence, f(x) is a not define function.

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