Math, asked by mmathskamarajschool, 7 months ago

let f: R to R be defined by f(X) = x^2 does this function passes an inverse function.given justification of your answers​

Answers

Answered by harshsharma88494
1

Answer:

Yes! It passes through its inverse

Step-by-step explanation:

If y = x²,

Then x = sqrt (y)

These two functions intersect at (0,0) and (1,1).

( see the attachment)...

And here is a note ( and a request) for you, my friend...

If you have any questions, or enquiry about my solution, or if you have more interesting problems in Mathematics, then please mail me at :-

[email protected]

I'm actually a 10th graded student, and I love mathematics. So I keep learning new topics. But I need your help, and help from everybody who is seeing this answer.

If you have ANY INTERESTING PROBLEM, then mail me at

This will be helpful for both of us.

Attachments:
Similar questions