Math, asked by vineethvishwa3290, 1 year ago

Let fn(x)=n∑r=1 sin2(x)cos2(x2)−cos2((2r+1)x2) and gn(x)=n∏k=1fk(x). If In=∫π0fn(x)gn(x)dx show that n∑k=1Ik=Kπ, and find K?


Anonymous: ___k off

Answers

Answered by adarsh98767
0
Abe question to dhand se likh liya kar



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