lim x tends to 3 1/x =1/3.is the statement true?
Answers
Answered by
0
Answer:
g(x)=
x
1
.
Limit of g(x) doesn't exist at x=0, but for
x→0
lim
f(x).g(x) and f(x)=x limit exists.
For option C,
Lets assume h(x)=f(x)+g(x),
Take limit on both sides as x→c
lim
x→c
h(x)=lim
x→c
(f(x)+g(x))
And it is given that lim
x→c
f(x) exists.
Using sum law of limits:
If lim
x→c
F(x) and lim
x→c
G(x) exists, then lim
x→c
(F(x)±G(x)) also exists.
∴lim
x→c
(h(x)−f(x))=lim
x→c
(f(x)+g(x)−f(x))=lim
x→c
g(x) exists.
For option D, take f(x)=−
x
2
cosx
and g(x)=
x
2
1
.
Limit of g(x) and f(x)=−
x
2
cosx
doesn't exist at x=0, but for
x→0
lim
f(x)+g(x) limit exists.
Similar questions
Social Sciences,
1 day ago
Hindi,
2 days ago
Chemistry,
2 days ago
Chemistry,
8 months ago
Math,
8 months ago
Social Sciences,
8 months ago