Question

lim X tends to zero (1-cosx)/x^2​

Answer 1

✨ welcome to the concept of limits and derivatives ✨

⏩we know that

$1 - \cos(x) = 2 \sin {}^{2} ( \frac{x}{2} )$

then

lim X tends to 0 (1-cosx)/x^2

then ,

after solving you get

answer 1/2

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Answer 2

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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