Math, asked by bhagatsingh272000, 11 months ago

limit (n+1)^p×n!÷(n+1)!×(n)^p
n->∞​

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
2

Step-by-step explanation:

If Sn → S for some S then we say that the series. ∑∞ n=1 an converges to ... n=p an converges for any p ≥ 1. .... and (S2n) converge to the same limit and therefore (Sn) converges.

Similar questions