Question

Logarithm problem If (r/r1)+log(r2/r1)=1 and r2=er then prove that r/r1 log(r/r1) =1

Answer 1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:yes

Answer 2

Hence proved, r/r1 log(r/r1) =1

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

• $\frac{r}{r1} + log( \frac{r2}{r1} ) = 1$
• $r2 = er$

$= > \frac{r2}{r} = e$

Taking log on both side,

$= > log( \frac{r2}{r} ) = log(e)$

$= > log( \frac{r2}{r} ) = 1$

Now comparing both the equations we get,

$= > \frac{r}{r1} + log( \frac{r2}{r1} ) = log( \frac{r2}{r} )$

$log( \frac{a}{b} ) = log(a) - log(b)$

$= > \frac{r}{r1} + log(r2) - log(r1) = log(r2) - log(r)$

$= > \frac{r}{r1} = log(r1) - log(r)$

$= > \frac{r}{r1} = log( \frac{r1}{r} )$

$= > \frac{r1}{r} log( \frac{r1}{r} ) = 1$

Hence proved.