Social Sciences, asked by sushmadavi1460, 4 months ago

loss %,when Cp= rupees 460 and Sp = rupees 380.

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Answered by dhruvpaswan33

Answer:

the answer was come in point 13.4%

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Answered by sucharitaraiganj12

Answer:

$when \: cost \: price \: 460 \: rupees \: and \: sale \: price \: 380 \: so \: loss \: (460 -380) \: = 80$

$when \: cost \: price \: 460 \: rupees \: so \: loss \: 80 \: rupees \\ </p><p>when \: cost \: price \: 1 \: rupees \: so \: loss \: \frac{80}{460} \: rupees \\ </p><p>when \: cost \: price \: 100 \: rupees \: loss \: \frac{(80 \times 100)}{460} rupees \\ \: \: = 17.39\%$

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loss %,when Cp= rupees 460 and Sp = rupees 380.​

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loss %,when Cp= rupees 460 and Sp = rupees 380.