Question

M by 4 minus 1 by 2 is equal to m by 6 plus 5

Answer 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Q3) Solve the following equations:

(a) 4 = 5(p – 2)

(b) – 4 = 5(p – 2)

(c) 16 = 4 + 3(t + 2)

(d) 4 + 5(p – 1) =34

(e) 0 = 16 + 4(m – 6)

Answer:

Solution 3:

(a) 4 = 5(p-2)

4 = 5p-10

4+10 = 5p

14 = 5p

\frac{14}{5\ }=\ p\

5

14

= p

(b) -4= 5 (p-2)

-4 = 5p -10

-4+10 = 5p

6 = 5p

\frac{6}{5\ }=\ p\

5

6

= p

(c) 16 = 4+3 (t+2)

16 = 4+ 3t +6

16 = 10 +3t

16-10 = 3t

6 = 3t

\frac{6}{3\ }=\ t\

3

6

= t

t = 2

(d) 4+ 5(p-1) = 34

4+ 5p -5 = 34

5p -1 = 34

5p = 35

p\ =\ \frac{35}{5}p =

5

35

p = 7

(e) 0 = 16 +4 (m-6 )

16 = 4(m-6 )

16 = 4m - 24

16+24 = 4m

40 = 4m

\frac{40}{4}=\ m\

4

40

= m

10 = m