Social Sciences, asked by mshaarav, 4 months ago

M. Shaarav,
please answer this question soon,
Gandhiji strongly believed that every adult in India should be given the right to vote. However, a few people don't share his views. They feel that illiterate people, who are mainly poor, should not be given the right to vote. What do you think? Do you think this would be a form of discrimination? Give five points to support your view.

Answers

Answered by sarakshirohitsharma
1

All citizens are equal. The constitution aims at providing all equality to all its citizens. If a person believes in that illiterate people should not be given the right to vote then he is simply being a discriminator.

We have no right to discriminate anyone on the basis of poverty.

An illiterate is also a citizen of India. He should not be debarred from voting right on the basis of his illiteracy.

Our constitution provides equal voting rights to all its citizens.

As ideal citizens, we all have to abide by the constitutional provisions.  

We must honour human dignity and legal provisions.

Answered by subasree28
0

Answer:

yes this is a discrimination

×India is a democratic country so all people are equal before the law.

×then what is means equality because it means all are equal but they are tell only few can vote.

my suggestion is that every Citizen above 18 can vote

Explanation:

mark me as brainlist

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