Geography, asked by divyanshgupta2311, 8 months ago

Mere avaibaility of resorces does not mean development . justiify the statement with help of an example from india

Answers

Answered by ratanvoleti
0

Answer:

Explanation:

Heya!!Here is your answer friend ⤵⤵

➡The statement is absolutely correct . Mere availability of resources in the absence of corresponding changes in technology may hinder development.

This is because available resources can be put to proper use only by the means of advanced technology , skills and institutional set up.

The absence of technology makes it impossible to out the available resources to proper use . It also makes it difficult to extract the possible benefits from them.

Hope it helps you ✌✌

Please mark as the brainliest answer .

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