Math, asked by kiran76, 1 year ago

mmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmm

Attachments:

krish02: answer is one
Akhilrajp: it's how
krish02: by substituting a power x in b power y we get c value next keep the c value in c power z then u can see that a power xyz equal to a
krish02: if bases are equal powers also equal

Answers

Answered by Parthi10590
0
b^y=c becomes (a^x)^y=c when we substitute b value , so a^xy=c , now substituting this in third equation , (a^xy)^z=a or in simple terms a^xyz=a , anything raised to 1 is same values , so xyz must be 1 , so that a^1=a , Answer is xyz=1
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