Math, asked by wwwsatyawansan, 10 months ago

Mrk u as brainlist.....

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Answered by iitsnikhil
1

Step-by-step explanation:

(cos^2 40+cos^2 50)÷(sin^2 40+sin^2 40)(cos (40-A)-sin(50-A))

Now ,

(cos^2(90-50)+cos^50)÷(sin^240+sin^2 40)(cos (40-A)-sin(50-A))

we can write cos^2(90- 50)as sin^2 50 soo

(sin^50+cos^50)÷(sin^240+sin^2 40)(cos (40-A)-sin(50-A))

according to rule cos^2a+sin^2a=1 so

1÷(2×sin^2 40) sorry it is difficult to do please you can go for all ncert solutions if it is from ncert book from play Store

Answered by NikhilSoni008
0

Step-by-step explanation:

nksoni has given right answer

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