Object takes "n" times more to slide down a 45 degree rough incline plane in comparison to slides down a perfectly smooth 45 degre inlcine.The coeff of kinetic friction between object and incline is ????????????????????????????
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Answered by
158
Hey there !!!!!
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On smooth inclined plane acceleration of the body:
a=gsinθ
If "s" is distance traveled , u=0 and t₁ is time taken
s=ut+at₁²/2
s=0+gt₁²sinθ/2
s=gt₁²sinθ/2-------Equation 1
On rough inclined plane if "p" is coefficient of friction acceleration is
a=gsinθ- pgcosθ
Distance traveled if u=0 time=t₂
s=ut₂+at₂²/2
s=0+(gsinθ- pgcosθ)t₂²/2
s=(gsinθ- pgcosθ)t₂²/2----Equation 2
As the body travels the same distance irrespective of nature of the surface
Equating equation 1 & 2
gt₁²sinθ/2=(gsinθ- pgcosθ)t₂²/2
gt₁²sinθ=(gsinθ- pgcosθ)t₂²
t₂²/t₁²=gsinθ/(gsinθ- pgcosθ)
But according to question t₂=nt₁
t₂²/t₁²=n²
n²=gsinθ/(gsinθ- pgcosθ)
n²=sinθ/sinθ-pcosθ
n²(sinθ-pcosθ)=sinθ
n²sinθ-n²pcosθ=sinθ
n²sinθ-sinθ=n²pcosθ
sinθ(n²-1)/cosθ*n²=p
sinθ/cosθ=tanθ
So,
tanθ(n²-1)/n²=p
But θ=45 and tan45=1
So tan45(n²-1)/n²=p
p=n²/n²-1/n²
p=1-1/n²
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Hope this helped you...................
_______________________________________________
On smooth inclined plane acceleration of the body:
a=gsinθ
If "s" is distance traveled , u=0 and t₁ is time taken
s=ut+at₁²/2
s=0+gt₁²sinθ/2
s=gt₁²sinθ/2-------Equation 1
On rough inclined plane if "p" is coefficient of friction acceleration is
a=gsinθ- pgcosθ
Distance traveled if u=0 time=t₂
s=ut₂+at₂²/2
s=0+(gsinθ- pgcosθ)t₂²/2
s=(gsinθ- pgcosθ)t₂²/2----Equation 2
As the body travels the same distance irrespective of nature of the surface
Equating equation 1 & 2
gt₁²sinθ/2=(gsinθ- pgcosθ)t₂²/2
gt₁²sinθ=(gsinθ- pgcosθ)t₂²
t₂²/t₁²=gsinθ/(gsinθ- pgcosθ)
But according to question t₂=nt₁
t₂²/t₁²=n²
n²=gsinθ/(gsinθ- pgcosθ)
n²=sinθ/sinθ-pcosθ
n²(sinθ-pcosθ)=sinθ
n²sinθ-n²pcosθ=sinθ
n²sinθ-sinθ=n²pcosθ
sinθ(n²-1)/cosθ*n²=p
sinθ/cosθ=tanθ
So,
tanθ(n²-1)/n²=p
But θ=45 and tan45=1
So tan45(n²-1)/n²=p
p=n²/n²-1/n²
p=1-1/n²
_____________________________________________
Hope this helped you...................
pankaj12je:
bruh I'm nt sir :P
Answered by
5
Answer:
coefficient of kinetic friction is (1 - 1/n^2).
this is the correct answer
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