Question

On selling each of two DVD player for 5000, riya neither gained nor lost. If she had sold one DVD at 25% gain,then at what loss% did she sell the other DVD player

Answer 1

$\large{\boxed{\bold{Answer:}}}$

S.P = 5000 rs

Gain = 25%

Now,

$C.P = 5000 \times \frac{100}{125} = 4000$

Let the amount of loss be x,

$C.P = 5000 \times \frac{100}{(100 - x)} \\ \\ = > \frac{500000}{(100 - x)}$

On selling 2 radios for 500 the person haven't lost or gained anything,

$= > 4000 +\frac{500000}{(100 - x)} = 10000 \\ \\ = \frac{500000}{(100 - x)} = 10000 - 4000 \\ \\ = \frac{500000}{(100 - x)} = 6000 \\ \\ = > 6000x = 100000 \\ \\ = > x = \frac{100}{6}\% \\ \\ = > \frac{50}{3}\% = 16 \frac{2}{3}\%$

$\large{\boxed{\bold{Hope\:it\:helps\:you!}}}$

Answer 2

$\huge {\ulcorner{\pink{Hey\: mate}}} \rfloor$

✨ $<b>Here's ur answer$

Given,

Selling price=5000$

Gain on the 1st DVD=25%

We know, cost price = selling price × 100/100 + gain%                    

So the cost price=
$5000 \times \frac{100}{125} \\ = 4000$
Now, let us consider the loss to be X

$so \: c.p = 5000 \times \frac{100}{100 - x}$

=>$\frac{ 500000 }{100 - x}$

As already mentioned in the question that on selling two radios for 5000

So
$4000 + \frac{500000}{(100 - x)} = 10000$

$\frac{500000}{100 - x} = 6000$

So, 6000x=100000

And x=$\frac{100}{6} \%$

=>$\frac{50}{3} = \underline {16 \times \frac{2}{ 3} \%}$

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