Social Sciences, asked by anumhanif30, 9 months ago

On what basis did Quaid-e-Azam demand an independent
country for the Muslims of the subcontinent?​

Answers

Answered by khushalmaddamsetty
1

Answer:

Hello,

I did not got it.

Answered by MuqaddimIqbal
1

Actually, there was no best then United India. But the mindset Hindutava created chaos in india. So, the two nation theory which wasn't so popular becomes popular as the 1934 elections won by Congress. But Congress proved just a hindu national party. It's made the place thin of muslims.

Quaid e azam realized who was first in Congress party and after joined the Muslim league that it's just like after British rule end then another hindu rule. where no place for muslims.

Now what's happening in india reflects how he foresaw the future.

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