one plus one is equal to three. how is this possible
Atharvaedits:
it is possible my false maths method
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Answered by
1
I have a mathematical proof for you:
Start with the following simple equation:
a=ba=b
(step 1) Multiply both sides by bb:
ab=b2ab=b2
(step 2) Subtract a2a2 from both sides and factorize:
ab−a2=b2−a2ab−a2=b2−a2
(step 3)
a(b−a)=(b+a)(b−a)a(b−a)=(b+a)(b−a)
(step 4) Simplify and add 1 to both sides:
a=b+aa=b+a
(step 5)
a+1=b+a+1a+1=b+a+1
Now since a=ba=b (the starting point of this proof), we can write this as:
a+1=2a+1a+1=2a+1
And in the case where a=1a=1, we have:
1+1=2+11+1=2+1
So, therefore,
1+1=3
i hope it will help
mark as brainliest.
Start with the following simple equation:
a=ba=b
(step 1) Multiply both sides by bb:
ab=b2ab=b2
(step 2) Subtract a2a2 from both sides and factorize:
ab−a2=b2−a2ab−a2=b2−a2
(step 3)
a(b−a)=(b+a)(b−a)a(b−a)=(b+a)(b−a)
(step 4) Simplify and add 1 to both sides:
a=b+aa=b+a
(step 5)
a+1=b+a+1a+1=b+a+1
Now since a=ba=b (the starting point of this proof), we can write this as:
a+1=2a+1a+1=2a+1
And in the case where a=1a=1, we have:
1+1=2+11+1=2+1
So, therefore,
1+1=3
i hope it will help
mark as brainliest.
Answered by
2
let x = y
x - y +y = y
(x-y+y) /(x-y) = y/ (x-y )
[dividing both by x-y]
1+ y /(x-y) = y / (x-y)
as we have assumed that x=y therefore x-y =0
1 = 0
adding 2 one on both side of the equation
1+1+1 = 0+ 1 +1
3 = 1+ 1
hence proved
1 = 1
41 – 40 = 61 – 60
16 + 25 – 40 = 36 + 25 – 60
4² + 5² – 2 * 4 * 5 = 6² + 5² – 2 * 6 * 5
(4 – 5)² = (6 – 5)²
4 – 5 = 6 – 5
4 = 6
2 = 3
1 + 1 = 3
x - y +y = y
(x-y+y) /(x-y) = y/ (x-y )
[dividing both by x-y]
1+ y /(x-y) = y / (x-y)
as we have assumed that x=y therefore x-y =0
1 = 0
adding 2 one on both side of the equation
1+1+1 = 0+ 1 +1
3 = 1+ 1
hence proved
1 = 1
41 – 40 = 61 – 60
16 + 25 – 40 = 36 + 25 – 60
4² + 5² – 2 * 4 * 5 = 6² + 5² – 2 * 6 * 5
(4 – 5)² = (6 – 5)²
4 – 5 = 6 – 5
4 = 6
2 = 3
1 + 1 = 3
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