'Operant conditioning and respondent conditioning, although they are two methods of learning by association, the two have very different processes. While the operant involves the application of a reinforcement or punishment in voluntary behaviors, strengthening or weakening them, thus making an association between behavior and consequence, the respondent conditioning involves the association between an involuntary response and a stimulus, being them the neutral stimulus and unconditioned stimulus generating a conditioned response.''
is this right? if it's not, then why?
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IT IS CORRECT AND MORE APPROPRIATE WAY OF APPROACH. IT GIVES US CONFIDENCE AS WE ARE NOT DISCOURAGED..
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