(p-q)(p+q)+(q-r)(q+r)+(r-p)(r+p)=0
Answers
Answered by
11
Answer:
it is true
Step-by-step explanation:
we know that
(a+b)(a-b)=a^2-b^2
Attachments:
Answered by
14
Answer:
1step :-p2-q2+q2-r2+r2-p2 than all cut,at last 0
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