Math, asked by wlordsupreme, 4 months ago

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Answered by danya07
0

o is the answer as according to thsi it is the answer

Answered by 007Boy
7

Solution :-

 \frac{1}{1 -  \sin( \theta ) }  +  \frac{1}{1 +  \sin( \theta) }  = 2 \sec {}^{2} ( \theta)

Take LHS

 \frac{1}{1 -  \sin( \theta) }  +  \frac{1}{1 +  \sin( \theta) }

Now take LCM

 \frac{1 +  \sin( \theta  )  + 1  -  \sin( \theta) }{[(1 -  \sin\theta)(1 +  \sin\theta)] }   \\  \\  =\frac{2}{1 -  \sin {}^{2} ( \theta) }

We know that -

1 -  \sin {}^{2} ( \theta)  =  \cos {}^{2} (\theta)

Hence,

 \frac{2}{ \cos {}^{2} ( \theta) }  = 2 \sec {}^{2} ( \theta)  \:  \:  \:  \\  \\  \ \:  \:  \:  \: hence  \:  \:  \:  proved

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