Math, asked by Anonymous, 7 months ago

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Answered by tamannash2008
0

Answer:

Why is cos0=1 and sin0=0?

⑴ Just imagine we have a right-angle ⊿ABC with the ∠C=90°, ∠A= 10° and∠B= 80°.

Take BC as the base, then we have a very steep slope with apex A.

For angle A=10°,the adjacent side would be ALMOST AS LONG AS the hypotenuse,ie

cos10° is close to 1.

As we gradually decrease angle A or as ∠A→0,cosA→1.

Eventually, cos A becomes 1 ,as A becomes 0→cos0=1

⑵imagine BC=1 ,AC=1,000 AB=√1.000,001

∠A would be ver small, SinA=1/√1,000,001≈0

As we increase AC say to 1,000,000,keeping BC=1,

AB becomes √(1,000,000,000,001),∠A→0, sinA=1/√1,000,000,001≈0

Eventually, it implies that sin 0=0

⑶EULERR’S FORMULA,

e^ix=cosx+isinx ,plug in x=0 and equating real and imaginary parts,

e^0=1=cos0+isin0 ,

cos0=1, sin0=0

⑷ POWER SERIES METHOD:

cosx=1—½x²+x^4/4!—x^6/6! +......

sinx =x —x³/3!+x^5/5!—x ^7/7!+...

plug in x=0

→sin0=0 , ‘cos 0=1

Answered by riyarash40
10

Step-by-step explanation:

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