Physics, asked by pranav5910, 11 months ago

please answer my question

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Answered by dhruvsh
0
Frequency of a magnet in a uniform magnetic field is given as = 1/2π*√mass*Field^2/length
So,
n will be proportional to Bh^2
That's directly proportional to square of magnetic field of the earth so, your Correct answer will be option C
Answered by swatichaurasiya16
0

Answer:

Explanation: square of frequency of magnetic needle is directly proportional to earth's magnetic field.

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