Question

please answer *number 17* I'll mark the correct answer as the brainliest​

Answer 1

let a’,a€A

since f:Q---->Q

f(q)=q

f(a')=f(a)

a'=a

f(x)=3x-2

f(a')=3a'-2

f(a)=3a-2

since a'=a

3a'-2=3a-2

3a-2=3a-2

therefore,the function f(x) is one-one

HOPE IT'S HELPFUL........