Question

please answer the second question✌✌✌✌​

Answer 1

Answer:

Hey your answer is

Zero (0) solution

option A

Answer 2

Answer:

A) 0

Step-by-step explanation:

For a given pair of linear equation ,to have infinitely many solutions,it should satisfy the following equation.

$\frac{a1}{a2} = \frac{b1}{b2} = \frac{c1}{c2}$

For a given pair of linear equation ,to have a unique solution (one) ,it should satisfy the following equation.

$\frac{a1}{a2} \: is \: not \: equal \: to \: \frac{b1}{b2}$

For a given pair of linear equation ,to have no solution ,it should satisfy the following equation.

$\frac{a1}{a2} = \frac{b1}{b2} \: is \: not \: equal \: to \: \frac{c1}{c2}$