Question

please answer this asap​

Answer 1

Step-by-step explanation:

We have,

$\frac{p}{q} + \frac{q}{p} = - 1$

$= > \frac{(p^{2} + q^{2} )}{pq} = - 1$

$= > {p}^{2} + {q}^{2} + pq = 0$

Now,

${p}^{3} - {q}^{3} = (p - q)( {p}^{2} + {q}^{2} + pq)$

$= (p - q) \times 0 = 0$