Math, asked by riyaranjanasingh02, 9 months ago

Please answer this question​

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Answered by suvradeepmallick
1

Answer:

it's just simple math and simple formulas

hopefully it's not wrong

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Answered by nilimaredkar
0

Answer:

1. first apply rule of indices (a^n)^m=a^n×m

2.put multiply both side by log.

3.apply law of exponents.

4. take logx common.

5. cancel out everything you will get 0 on rhs .

6.on lhs you will also get 0 because log1=0

Therefore lhs=rhs

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