Math, asked by Anonymous, 8 months ago

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Answered by AnandMPC
1

Hello Mate,

 \huge{\blue{\star}} {\huge{\mathfrak{\red{\underline{Solution}}}}} \huge{\blue{\star}}

Take any constant, say 'k'.

Let,

 {2}^{x}  =  {3}^{y}  =  {6}^{ - z}    = k

Now,

 {2}^{x}  = k \:  \:  \\ 2 =   {k}^{ \frac{1}{x} }  \:  \:  \:  \:  \: ....(1)  \\   \\ {3}^{y}  = k \\ 3 =  {k}^{ \frac{1}{y} } \:  \:  \:  \:  \:   ....(2)\\  \\  {6}^{ - z}  = k \\ 6 =  {k }^{ \frac{ - 1}{z} } \:  \:  \:  \:   ....(3) \\  \\

We know 2 x 3 = 6

By taking a look at the above three equations we can say,

 {k}^{ \frac{1}{x} }   \times  {k}^{ \frac{1}{y} }  =  {k}^{ \frac{ - 1}{z} }  \\  \\ as \:  \: bases \:  \: are \:  \: equal \:  \: equate \: \: the \:  \: exponents \\  \\  \frac{1}{x}   +  \frac{1}{y}  =  -  \frac{1}{z}  \\  \\  \frac{1}{x}  +  \frac{1}{y}  +  \frac{1}{z}  = 0

Hence Proved,

Hope it helps:)

Answered by guthikondakovipcr9zl
1

I hope this will help you

please Mark it as Brainlist

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