Math, asked by mankiratsingh69, 7 months ago

please explain this question​

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Answers

Answered by harshsharma88494
3

Answer:

This is the magic of i and 4.

The answer is 0.

Step-by-step explanation:

Check the attachment for your answer

Hope this will help you.

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Answered by senboni123456
1

Step-by-step explanation:

We have,

 \sum_{r = 1}^{4n + 7}   i^{r}  \\

 =  {i}^{1}  +  {i}^{2}  +  {i}^{3}  + .... +  {i}^{4n + 7}

 =  \frac{i(1 -  {i}^{(4n + 7)}) }{1 - i}

 =  \frac{i(1 -  {i}^{4(n + 1) + 3}) }{1 - i}

 =  \frac{i(1 + i)}{(1 - i)}

 =  \frac{i(1 + i)^{2} }{1 -  {i}^{2} }

 =  \frac{i(1 +  {i}^{2} + 2i) }{2}

 =  \frac{2 {i}^{2} }{2}

 =  {i}^{2}  =  - 1

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