Math, asked by christybinson, 1 year ago

please find the answer for this

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Answered by Lalablackmama
0

so the logic here is the given equations shouldnt be parallel(then they'll have no solutions).

so if k=1, they'll be parallel right? because 1/2=3/6(hope u know the basics!)

thus any real number leaving 1 can have the value of k.

pls ask if u have doubts.

cheers. love love

Answered by GouriThanmayi
0

I hope this helps you

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