Math, asked by Anonymous, 1 year ago

Please give the solution.

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Answered by krishjasoria5678
1

p-1 = 0

then, p = 1

putting the value of p in both factors

(p)10 - 1

as p = 1

(1)10 - 1

1 - 1

0

now

(p)11 - 1 = (1)11 -1 = 1 - 1 = 0



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Answered by siddhartharao77
8

Let f(x) = p^10 - 1.

f(1) = (1)^10 - 1

    = 1 - 1

    = 0.

By factor theorem, p - 1 is a factor of p^10 - 1.


Let g(x) = p^11 - 1.

f(1) = 1^11 - 1

    = 1 - 1

   = 0.

By factor theorem, p - 1 is a factor of p^11 - 1.


Therefore, (p - 1) is a factor of (p)^10 - 1 and (p)^11 - 1.


Hope this helps!


Prakhar2908: !!
siddhartharao77: Thank you!
Anonymous: thanks dear friend
siddhartharao77: welcome friend!
rohitkumargupta: but bhai
rohitkumargupta: in question it is written as "show that" not "GIVEN THAT"
rohitkumargupta: so, how can u say (p - 1) is a factor of (p^10 - 1)
siddhartharao77: if it is = 0, then it is a factor of of f(x).
rohitkumargupta: i think u have to correct your answer
siddhartharao77: I am 100% correct. i will correct your answer because u r not satisfied with my answer. can u give me edit option!
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