Geography, asked by rohan2580, 8 months ago

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Answered by yogesh9731665847
1

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the answer plzz brainlessly

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Answered by Anonymous
4

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The peneplain concept is often juxtaposed to that of pediplain. ... A difference in form that may be present is that of residual hills which in Davis' peneplains are to have gentle slopes while in pediplains they ought to have the same steepness as the slopes in the early stages of erosion leading to pediplanation.

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