Please help me to solve this question..??
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Step-by-step explanation:
Is it ok
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mahmud55:
Yes,thanks a lot
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Given that ;
Area (ΔDRC) = Area (ΔDPC). ..... (i)
∴ ar (ΔDRC and ΔDPC) are are equal and on the same base BC.
⇒ DC || RP
Therefore, DCRP is a trapezium.
Again,
Area (ΔARC) = Area (ΔBDP)
On subtracting eqⁿ (i) on both sides -
⇒ Area (ΔARC - ΔDRC) = Area (ΔBDP = ΔDPC)
⇒ Area (ΔADC) = Area (ΔBDC)
Similarly, ΔADC and ΔBDC lie on the same base DCand between the same parallels DC and AB
⇒ DC || AB
∴ ABCD is a trapezium.
Hence, it is proved.
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Check your answer once again i think you have mistaken letters
May i know in which line ?
Many lines but i pointed there..between the same parallel DCandAP..think it should be DCandAB
Oh yeah! I've corrected. Thank you for correcting me. Hope everything is clear now :)
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