Question

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Answer 1

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer 2

Answer:

The multiplicative inverse of $(\frac{1}{2} )^4$ ÷ $(\frac{1}{3} )^4$ + $(-\frac{1}{2})^4$ is $\frac{8}{41}$

Option D) is correct Answer.

Step-by-step explanation:

$(\frac{1}{2} )^4$ ÷ $(\frac{1}{3} )^4$ + $(-\frac{1}{2})^4$

$=(\frac{1}{2} )^4$ x $3^4$ + $(\frac{1}{2})^4$  [∵ division is upside down multiplication and

                            even number of negative multiplication results in positive]

$=(\frac{1}{2} )^4(3^4 + 1)$

$=(\frac{1}{16} )(81 + 1)$

$=\frac{82}{16}$

$=\frac{41}{8}$

Now multiplicative inverse of a number is when multiplied by the original number, results in 1.

Therefore, the multiplicative inverse of $\frac{41}{8}$ is $\frac{8}{41}$