Physics, asked by sonu806, 1 year ago

please solve...............?

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Answered by vipul462
0
The second one 2a1=a2

sonu806: U r wrong
vipul462: How??
sonu806: the ans is 3a1=3a2
sonu806: Ans is 4 th option
vipul462: Can u pls explain
Answered by somesh17
0
The correct answer is 4) 3a1=a2. because when m1 pull m2 by second pulley, that time again m1 pull the pulley no. 2 and resist the force on m2 by m1 and hence a2 is greater than a1
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