Question

Please solve question no 17
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Answer 1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer 2

hey mate

here is the answer.....

Answer:

given:

p1,p2,p3,.....pn are distinct odd prime numbers.

then,by fundamental theorem of arithmetic,

we must have a prime number(p) such that

p=p1*p2*p3....pn

and this factoristion is unique except for the order in which they occur.

so,

(p+1) and p will be co-prime as consecutive number are always co-prime.(that is their hcf is 1)

for example: 2and 3 , 4 and 5

but we know that p is prime,so (p+1) will also be prime.

this also proves that there is infinite prime numbers.

so,(p1p2p3...pn+1) will be a prime number..