Physics, asked by adityapratapsingh98, 5 months ago

Please Solve the Question?​

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Answers

Answered by ankurpathak005
1

Answer:

C) 20ms-1

Explanation:

because you are giving the force to the particle for 10s so the velocity will become (10 ×2)= 20 m-1 then for rest of the time the particle is moving by its own, then it should be 20ms-1 (if any other forces are not applied).

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