Math, asked by abhishek20041017, 5 hours ago

please solve the question with explanation. (Explanation compulsory)​

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Answered by senboni123456
0

Step-by-step explanation:

We have,

   \log_{ \cos(x) }( \sin(x) )  = 1 \\

 \implies  \sin(x)   =  \cos(x)  \\

 \implies  \tan(x)   = 1  \\

 \implies x   = \frac{\pi}{4}  \\

Answered by OshivaniM
0

we will use the log base formula

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