Physics, asked by diljotsinghdhillon, 9 months ago

pls ans correctly otherwise don't write

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Answered by deepvrm
0

Explanation:

moment of inertia of ring 1=MR^2/2

moment of inertia of ring 3 and 2 are equal and according to law of parallel axis moment of inertia of ring 2 is MR^2/2+ M(R)^2 hence total moment of inertia of system all yy'=MR^2/2+ M(R)^2 +MR^2/2+ M(R)^2 +MR^2/2= 7MR^2/2

(a few of life of parallel axis boring while the distance of separation from centre of mass and axis of rotation is zero and for ring 2 and 3 it is R)

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