Question

Pls answer it......................

Answer 1

Taking L.H.S ,

√1-cos A/√1+cos A

By rationalising ,

√1-cos A/√1+cos A ×

√1-cos A/√1-cos A

=√(1-cos A)^2/√1-cos A^2

we know that sin^2A+cos^2A=1

so , sin^2 A = 1-cos^2A

√(1-cosA)^2/√sin^2 A

=1-cosA/sin A

hence proved.