Math, asked by chandragauri912, 3 months ago

Pls explain briefly coz I have test in weeks

Attachments:

Answers

Answered by RetroMan
2

Answer:

It's an easy one .

Step-by-step explanation:

You need to know that x to the power of 0 is 1 . So you will get the denominator as well as numerator equal .

Answered by Anonymous
3

Answer:

\frac{x ^{m+n} X x^{n+l}  X x^{l+m}}{x^{m} X x^{n}  X x^{l}   } = 1

x^{m+n} X x^{n+l}  X x^{l+m}  = x^{m+n+n+l+l+m} =x^{2(l+m+n)}

(x^{m} X x^{n} X  x^{l})^{2} =x^{(m+n+l)^{2}}  =x^{2}^{(m+n+l)}

LHS = \frac{ x^{m+n} X x^{n+l} Xx^{l+n} }{ (x^{m} X x^{n} X x^{l} )^{2}  } \\ =\frac{x^{2(m+l+n)} }{x^{2 (m+l+n)}}

= 1 = RHS \\ hence proved

Note :X= multiplication sign

Step-by-step explanation:

Best of luck for your exam buddy/bro

Similar questions