Math, asked by chithraL, 6 hours ago

pls help me to do this I'll mark u as the brainliest ​

Attachments:

Answers

Answered by jitendrabansal
0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Option (a) is correct

Answered by krrishkaiga
0

Answer:

for infinitely many solutions = a¹/a² = b¹/b² = c¹/c²

a¹= 3

b¹= 2

c¹= -4

a²= 6

b²= k

c²= -8

substituting the value of all

3/6 = 2/k = -4/-8

1/2 = 2/k = 1/2

2/k = 1/2

2 = k/2

k = 2 × 2

k = 4

Therefore option b is correct.

Similar questions