Math, asked by hemlatasantwani, 7 months ago

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Answers

Answered by orchidravi3
0

Answer:

option d

Step-by-step explanation:

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Answered by SomeOneThere
1

Step-by-step explanation:

a) because,,,

( { \binom{5}{6} }^{ \binom{1}{5} } )^{ \binom{ - 1}{6} }

is equal to...

{( \frac{5}{6}^ \frac{1 \times ( - 1)}{5 \times 6} ) }

not equal to

( \binom{5}{6}^{ \frac{1}{5}  -  \frac{1}{6} }

Hope you got it..

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