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Answer:
No, it is not.
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Step-by-step explanation:
P(x) =x^3 - x^2 +3x - 2
For x-2 to be factor of p(x)
There must be [ p(2) =0 ]
Now put x=2 in p(x)
P(2) =2^3 - 2^2 +3×2 - 2
= 8- 4 +6 - 2
=14 - 6 =8
As p(0) =/ 0
Hence (x-2) is not factor of p(x)
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