Math, asked by AnuragPatel, 1 year ago

plz explain how this step came

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Answered by ByakuyaKuchiki
0
\frac{(cos\theta-1)^2-sin^2\theta}{(sin\theta+cos\theta)^2-1^2}Multiply them:
= \frac{(sin\theta-cos\theta+1)(sin\theta+cos\theta+1)}{(sin\theta+cos\theta-1)(sin\theta+cos\theta+1)} = \frac{sin^2\theta-(cos^2\theta+1)}{(sin\theta+cos\theta)^2-1^2}
This is achieved as we know that  x^{2} - y^{2} = (x+y)(x-y)
also, we know that sin^2\theta=cos^2\theta-1
similarly, we have cos^2+1=sin^2\theta
Therefroe, by substituting these, we got the above answer

ByakuyaKuchiki: hey!!
ByakuyaKuchiki: its incomplete
ByakuyaKuchiki: im so sorry...i will post the full answer again
AnuragPatel: ok
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